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NEW QUESTION # 147
You work as a project manager for a company. The company has started a new security software project. The software configuration management will be used throughout the lifecycle of the project. You are tasked to modify the functional features and the basic logic of the software and then make them compatible to the initial design of the project. Which of the following procedures of the configuration management will you follow to accomplish the task?
- A. Configuration control
- B. Configuration audits
- C. Configuration status accounting
- D. Configuration identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer C is incorrect. Configuration audits confirm that the configuration identification for a configured item is accurate, complete, and will meet specified program needs. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation. Answer D is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle.
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Physical
- B. Administrative
- C. Automatic
- D. Technical
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Security guards, locks on the gates, and alarms come under physical access control. Policies and procedures implemented by an organization come under administrative access control. IDS systems, encryption, network segmentation, and antivirus controls come under technical access control. Answer D is incorrect. There is no such type of access control as automatic control.
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which of the following configuration management system processes keeps track of the changes so that the latest acceptable configuration specifications are readily available?
- A. Configuration Verification and Audit
- B. Configuration Control
- C. Configuration Status and Accounting
- D. Configuration Identification
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. The configuration status and accounting process keeps track of the changes so that the latest acceptable configuration specifications are readily available.
AnswerC is incorrect. The verification and audit processes seek to establish a high level of confidence in
how well the Configuration Management activity is working. AnswerA is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. AnswerD is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.
NEW QUESTION # 150
The DoD 8500 policy series represents the Department's information assurance strategy. Which of the following objectives are defined by the DoD 8500 series? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Defending systems
- B. Providing IA Certification and Accreditation
- C. Protecting information
- D. Providing command and control and situational awareness
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The various objectives of the DoD 8500 series are as follows: Protecting information Defending systems Providing command and control and situational awareness Making sure that the information assurance is integrated into processes Increasing security awareness throughout the DoD's workforce
NEW QUESTION # 151
The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Compliance validation
- B. System operations
- C. Change management
- D. Maintenance of the SSAA
- E. Security operations
- F. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation:
The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation Answer F is incorrect. It is a Phase 3 activity.
NEW QUESTION # 152
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
- A. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
- B. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
- C. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
- D. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 153
You and your project team have identified the project risks and now are analyzing the probability and impact of the risks. What type of analysis of the risks provides a quick and high-level review of each identified risk event?
- A. A risk probability-impact matrix
- B. Quantitative risk analysis
- C. Seven risk responses
- D. Qualitative risk analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Qualitative risk analysis is a high-level, fast review of the risk event. Qualitative risk analysis qualifies the risk events for additional analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 154
John works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with his team on the disaster recovery management plan. One of his team members has a doubt related to the most cost effective DRP testing plan. According to you, which of the following disaster recovery testing plans is the most cost-effective and efficient way to identify areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more demanding training exercises?
- A. Structured walk-through test
- B. Walk-through drill
- C. Full-scale exercise
- D. Evacuation drill
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The structured walk-through test is also known as the table-top exercise. In structured walk- through test, the team members walkthrough the plan to identify and correct weaknesses and how they will respond to the emergency scenarios by stepping in the course of the plan. It is the most effective and competent way to identify the areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more challenging training exercises. AnswerA is incorrect. In full-scale exercise, the critical systems run at an alternate site.
AnswerB is incorrect. The emergency management group and response teams actually perform their
emergency response functions by walking through the test, without actually initiating recovery procedures.
But it is not much cost effective. AnswerD is incorrect. It is a test performed when personnel walks through the evacuation route to a designated area where procedures for accounting for the personnel are tested.
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?
- A. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
- B. Risk Management
- C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
- D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Certification and accreditation (C&A) is a set of processes that culminate in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls. Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer D is incorrect. Risk management is a set of processes that ensures a risk-based approach is used to determine adequate, cost- effective security for a system. Answer A is incorrect. Information assurance (IA) is the process of organizing and monitoring information-related risks. It ensures that only the approved users have access to the approved information at the approved time. IA practitioners seek to protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring confidentiality, integrity, authentication, availability, and non-repudiation. These objectives are applicable whether the information is in storage, processing, or transit, and whether threatened by an attack. Answer B is incorrect. ISSE is a set of processes and solutions used during all phases of a system's life cycle to meet the system's information protection needs.
NEW QUESTION # 156
What are the various benefits of a software interface according to the "Enhancing the Development Life Cycle to Produce Secure Software" document? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. It provides a programmatic way of communication between the components that are working with different programming languages.
- B. It modifies the implementation of a component without affecting the specifications of the interface.
- C. It controls the accessing of a component.
- D. It displays the implementation details of a component.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
The benefits of a software interface are as follows: It provides a programmatic way of communication between the components that are working with different programming languages. It prevents direct communication between components. It modifies the implementation of a component without affecting the specifications of the interface. It hides the implementation details of a component. It controls the accessing of a component. Answer C is incorrect. A software interface hides the implementation details of the component.
NEW QUESTION # 157
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Validation
- B. Re-Accreditation
- C. Accreditation
- D. Identification
- E. System Definition
- F. Verification
Answer: A,B,E,F
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk.
DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system's life cycle.
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases: 1.System Definition 2.Verification 3.Validation 4.Re-Accreditation
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which of the following governance bodies provides management, operational and technical controls to satisfy security requirements?
- A. Senior Management
- B. Information Security Steering Committee
- C. Business Unit Manager
- D. Chief Information Security Officer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Senior management provides management, operational and technical controls to satisfy security requirements. The governance roles and responsibilities are mentioned below in the table:
NEW QUESTION # 159
Which of the following security related areas are used to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of federal information systems and information processed by those systems?
- A. Configuration management
- B. Risk assessment
- C. Media protection
- D. Access control
- E. Personnel security
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The minimum security requirements cover seventeen security related areas to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of federal information systems and information processed by those systems. They are as follows: Access control Awareness and training Audit and accountability Certification, accreditation, and security assessment Configuration management Contingency planning Identification and authentication Incident response Maintenance Media protection Physical and environmental protection Planning Personnel security Risk assessment Systems and services acquisition System and communications protection System and information integrity
NEW QUESTION # 160
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
- B. DC Security Design & Configuration
- C. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
- D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Following are the various U.S. Department of Defense information security standards: DC Security Design & Configuration IA Identification and Authentication EC Enclave and Computing Environment EB Enclave Boundary Defense PE Physical and Environmental PR Personnel CO Continuity VI Vulnerability and Incident Management Answer B is incorrect. Business continuity management is an International information security standard.
NEW QUESTION # 161
Which of the following elements sets up a requirement to receive the constrained requests over a protected layer connection, such as TLS (Transport Layer Security)?
- A. Web resource collection
- B. User data constraint
- C. Accounting constraint
- D. Authorization constraint
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: User data constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement to receive the constrained requests over a protected layer connection, such as TLS (Transport Layer Security). The user data constraint offers guarantee (NONE, INTEGRAL, and CONFEDENTIAL) for the transportation of data between client and server. If a request does not have user data constraint, the container accepts the request after it is received on a connection.
AnswerC is incorrect. Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define
all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods AnswerB is incorrect. Authorization constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement for authentication and names the authorization roles that can access the URL patterns and HTTP methods as defined by the security constraint. In the absence of a security constraint, the container accepts the request without requiring any user authentication. If no authorization role is specified in the authorization constraint, the container cannot access constrained requests. The wildcard character "*" specifies all authorization role names that are defined in the deployment descriptor. AnswerD is incorrect. It is not a security constraint element.
NEW QUESTION # 162
The organization level is the Tier 1 and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. What are the various Tier 1 activities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system- related security risks.
- B. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 1.
- C. The level of risk tolerance.
- D. The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. It includes the following points: The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. During risk assessment, the methods and procedures the organization plans to use, to evaluate the significance of the risks identified. The types and extent of risk mitigation measures the organization plans to employ, to address identified risks. The level of risk tolerance. According to the environment of operation, how the organization plans to monitor risks on an ongoing basis, given the inevitable changes to organizational information system.
The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, in order to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.Answer: D is incorrect. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 3.
NEW QUESTION # 163
In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
- A. Walk-through test
- B. Paper test
- C. Penetration test
- D. Full operational test
Answer: C
Explanation:
A penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration test is to determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. Answer C is incorrect. A paper test is the least complex test in the disaster recovery and business continuity testing approaches. In this test, the BCP/DRP plan documents are distributed to the appropriate managers and BCP/DRP team members for review, markup, and comment. This approach helps the auditor to ensure that the plan is complete and that all team members are familiar with their responsibilities within the plan. Answer D is incorrect. A walk-through test is an extension of the paper testing in the business continuity and disaster recovery process. In this testing methodology, appropriate managers and BCP/DRP team members discuss and walk through procedures of the plan. They also discuss the training needs, and clarification of critical plan elements. Answer A is incorrect. A full operational test includes all team members and participants in the disaster recovery and business continuity process. This full operation test involves the mobilization of personnel. It restores operations in the same manner as an outage or disaster would. The full operational test extends the preparedness test by including actual notification, mobilization of resources, processing of data, and utilization of backup media for restoration.
NEW QUESTION # 164
The Data and Analysis Center for Software (DACS) specifies three general principles for software assurance which work as a framework in order to categorize various secure design principles. Which of the following principles and practices does the General Principle 1 include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
- A. Assume environment data is not trustworthy
- B. Principle of least privilege
- C. Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles
- D. Simplify the design
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices: Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer C is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.
NEW QUESTION # 165
Rob is the project manager of the IDLK Project for his company. This project has a budget of $5,600,000 and is expected to last 18 months. Rob has learned that a new law may affect how the project is allowed to proceed - even though the organization has already invested over $750,000 in the project. What risk response is the most appropriate for this instance?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Mitigation
- C. Transference
- D. Enhance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: At this point all that Rob can likely do is accepting the risk event. Because this is an external risk, there is little that Rob can do other than document the risk and share the new with management and the project stakeholders. If the law is passed then Rob can choose the most appropriate way for the project to continue. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types:
Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. AnswerB is incorrect.
Mitigation aims to lower the probability and/or impact of the risk event. AnswerC is incorrect.
Transference transfers the ownership of the risk event to a third party, usually through a contractual agreement. AnswerD is incorrect. Enhance is a risk response that tries to increase the probability and/or impact of the positive risk event.
NEW QUESTION # 166
Which of the following techniques is used to identify attacks originating from a botnet?
- A. IFilter
- B. BPF-based filter
- C. Recipient filtering
- D. Passive OS fingerprinting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Passive OS fingerprinting can identify attacks originating from a botnet. Network Administrators can configure the firewall to take action on a botnet attack by using information obtained from passive OS fingerprinting. Passive OS fingerprinting (POSFP) allows the sensor to determine the operating system used by the hosts. The sensor examines the traffic flow between two hosts and then stores the operating system of those two hosts along with their IP addresses. In order to determine the type of operating system, the sensor analyzes TCP SYN and SYN ACK packets that are traveled on the network. The sensor computes the attack relevance rating to determine the relevancy of victim attack using the target host OS. After it, the sensor modifies the alert's risk rating or filters the alert for the attack.
Passive OS fingerprinting is also used to improve the alert output by reporting some information, such as victim OS, relevancy to the victim in the alert, and source of the OS identification. AnswerD is incorrect. A BPF-based filter is used to limit the number of packets seen by tcpdump; this renders the output more usable on networks with a high volume of traffic. Answer: B is incorrect. Recipient filtering is used to block messages on the basis of whom they are sent to. Answer: C is incorrect. IFilters are used to extract contents from files that are crawled. IFilters also remove application-specific formatting before the content of a document is indexed by the search engine.
NEW QUESTION # 167
Which of the following terms refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access?
- A. Integrity
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Auditing
- D. Recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Confidentiality is a term that refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Symmetric encryption is a relatively fast encryption method. Hence, this method of encryption is best suited for encrypting large amounts of data such as files on a computer. Answer A is incorrect. Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer C is incorrect. Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown etc. This enhances the security of the network. Before enabling auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the Audit Policy in User Manager for Domains.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Which of the following DITSCAP phases validates that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment?
- A. Phase 4
- B. Phase 2
- C. Phase 3
- D. Phase 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Phase 3 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Validation. The goal of Phase 3 is to validate that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment. Answer C is incorrect. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. Answer A is incorrect. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. Answer B is incorrect. This phase ensures that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk.
NEW QUESTION # 169
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Career Opportunities
(ISC)2 CSSLP is an ideal option for the security professionals and software development specialists because it helps fortify and validate their skills to perform the required tasks efficiently. The individuals with this certificate can explore numerous career opportunities and take up the job titles as a Security Manager, a Cybersecurity Engineer, and a Security Consultant. They can also work as Information Managers, Information Security Consultants, Testing Managers, Information Security Managers, and IT Security Analysts. Their income will depend on their role, but looking at a possible average salary, they can expect about $98,000 per year.
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